by Dwayne Phillips
Of course the study was funded by someone. How else would it be studied?
Of course that study says XYZ, it was funded by the XYZ industry.
I see this all the time. A study states something. Immediately, some persons deny the study because it was funded by a group of (evil) persons who have an interest in the outcome of the study.
Those claims are true about the funding of the study, but the report could still be true. I mean 2 + 3 could still equal 5 no matter who funded the study.
After all, someone has to pay for these studies and investigations and tests and such. Can you please find me a group of persons who are qualified and eager to work for no pay? We could have them do the studies. Maybe the government would create an independent studies group to perform all the studies. Then again, one political party would vote for that, so they study-ers would be owned by that party. They study-ers would have to live somewhere, so they would be owned by their city, state, region, and country.
Is anyone impartial? Why do we ask, “Yes, but according to who?”
I guess no one trusts anyone anymore. This must all be Nixon’s fault, except that most people weren’t born yet when Nixon was President, so it must by Clinton’s fault (which Clinton?).
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